I can't see it either, but as it is one-off payments it looks a lot more like capital than income in the hands of the recipient.
My gut feeling is that you may looking at a resulting trust sort of scenarion (a real Quistclose v Barclays Bank case, which DWP never understand). In other words the money is paid to the carer on the express terms that it is used for a specific purpose and cannot be used for anything else: that if it is not so used within X months it is repayable. Is that so? If so, then the payee does not have the right to the money except for that purpose and will hold it on what is called a "resulting trust" - meaning that the equitable interest in the property "bounces back" (same root as "resilient") to the donor if they do not so use it.
Quistclose itself was a commercial case about money lent for a particular purpose: when the borrower went into liquidation the question was whether the unspent loan was to be treated as part of the borrower's assets and could thus be used to pay out to all the creditors, or whether the lender was entitled to get the lot back. The Court found on the express terms of the agreement that it was the latter, on the basis of the principle of resulting trusts.
Now how many of you knew what that case - which is referred to, totally irrelevantly, in every overpayment-due-to-excess-capital submission - was actually authority for?
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