If there's no evidence of the first marriage how do they know it happened, eh? mind you if ther was one you are going to need soem sort of evidence of the first wife's death even if it's only a statemnt from records or personal knowledge.
However if you are really sure of your dates - that there was a gap between the death of W1 and the marriage to W2 - then the fact that the marriage was potentially polygamous does not make it actually polygamous for benefit purposes. So if there really only was one wife at a time, W2 is now a widow and entitled to any survivorship benefits that may be going.
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