Hi,

Has anyone had any success with proving 'tacit consent' for bereavement allowance purposes?

I have a client who divorced her husband in 1983 but then got back together with him several months later and they have lived together as husband and wife ever since until he recently passed away. Unfortunately they never remarried though, therefore the DWP are saying there is a lack of tacit consent?

I've not come across this kind of case before so would appreciate any pointers.

Many thanks,

Sarah

It does not apply this side of the border but there has been a relevant discussion on this point before on rightsnet labelled as below .

Berevement Benefit - Tacit Consent
Topic started by Rosie red shoes, 08th Aug 2008 (10 replies)

Thanks for that, I'll take a look.