I've always been a bit baffled with the following but have always previously had the value disrgarded for other reasons.

This time I need to consider 'the value of a home is ignored if it's occupied as their home by your former partner from whom you are not estranged or divorced'.

Call me stoopid if you will but what does that mean? Does it mean residing but not living together?

Surely thats where one partner is e.g. in residential care and the other is occupying the matrimonial home. so the person in res care has their means assessed on teh basis that they do not have capital from the matrimonial home. isn't it?

Aaaah yes - common sense really! I just couldn't get my head round it. Go on then you can call me stoopid!